Consider the following statements:
1. Pursuant to the report of the H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the power to make laws on Contempt of Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
The question asks to identify the correct statements regarding the Contempt of Courts Act and constitutional provisions related to contempt. We need to evaluate each statement based on legal and constitutional facts.
B) 1, 2 and 4
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because the definitions of civil and criminal contempt are found in the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, not in the Constitution itself.
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
The question asks us to evaluate two statements regarding the legal profession in India, specifically concerning advocates and the powers of Bar Councils. We need to determine the correctness of each statement based on the Advocates Act, 1961, and related legal provisions.
B) 2 only
Consider the following statements:
1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
The question asks us to identify the correct statements regarding the process of amending the Indian Constitution. We need to evaluate each statement based on the provisions of Article 368 of the Constitution and related constitutional practices.
Correct Option: B) 2 and 3 only
Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
The question asks us to evaluate two statements regarding the classification of ministers and the maximum strength of the Council of Ministers in the Union Government. We need to determine which of these statements is/are correct based on the provisions of the Indian Constitution.
Analyze Statement 1: "The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister."
Analyze Statement 2: "The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha."
Based on the analysis, only Statement 2 is correct.
Correct Option: B) 2 only
Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?
1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
The question asks to identify the exclusive power(s) of the Lok Sabha among the given options. We need to analyze each statement to determine if it is a power held solely by the Lok Sabha or if it is shared with the Rajya Sabha.
Based on the analysis, only statement 2 represents an exclusive power of the Lok Sabha.
Correct Option: B) 2 only
With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
The question asks us to evaluate two statements regarding the anti-defection law in India. We need to determine the correctness of each statement based on the provisions of the Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
Correct Option: B) 2 only
Consider the following statements:
1. The Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
This question tests knowledge about the roles and constitutional provisions related to the Attorney General of India (AGI) and Solicitor General of India (SGI) concerning their participation in Parliament and their tenure.
Correct Option: D) Neither 1 nor 2
With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
3. Any public-minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
The question asks to identify the correct statements regarding different types of writs issued by Indian Courts. We need to evaluate each statement based on the established principles of writ jurisdiction in India.
D) 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct based on the principles of writ jurisdiction in India.
With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:
1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
3. It has seamless portability across the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
The question asks us to evaluate the correctness of three statements regarding the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM). We need to analyze each statement based on the known objectives and features of the ABDM.
B) 3 only
Based on the analysis, only statement 3 is correct. Statements 1 and 2 contain inaccuracies regarding the mandatory nature of adoption and universal enrollment.
With reference to the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is correct?
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
3 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
The question asks us to identify the correct statements regarding the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha. We need to evaluate each statement based on constitutional provisions, parliamentary rules, and established practices.
A) 1 and 3 only. Statements 1 and 3 are correct as explained above.