2023 Prelims Paper 2 UPSC Question Paper

2023 Prelims Paper 2 UPSC Questions

1.

Directions for the following 5 (five) item:
Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage – 1
In India, the segregation of municipal waste at source is rare. Recycling is mostly with the informal sector. More than three-fourths of the municipal budget goes into collection and transportation, which leaves very little for processing/resource recovery and disposal. Where does waste-to-energy fit into all this? Ideally it fits in the chain after segregation (between wet waste and rest), collection, recycling, and before getting to the landfill. Which technology is most appropriate in converting waste to energy depends on what is in the waste (that is biodegradable versus non-biodegradable component) and its calorific value. The biodegradable component of India's municipal solid waste is a little over 50 per cent, and biomethanation offers a major solution for processing this.

Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Collection, processing and segregation of municipal waste should be with government agencies.
2. Resource recovery and recycling require technological inputs that can be best handled by private sector enterprises.
Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER :

D. Neither 1 nor 2

2.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?
A.
Generation of energy from municipal solid waste is inexpensive.
B.
Biomethanation is the most ideal way of generating energy from municipal solid waste.
C.
Segregation of municipal solid waste is the first step in ensuring the success of waste-to-energy plants.
D.
The biodegradable component of India's municipal solid waste is not adequate to provide energy from waste efficiently/effectively.
ANSWER :
C. Segregation of municipal solid waste is the first step in ensuring the success of waste-to-energy plants.
3.

Passage –2
There is a claim that organic farming is inherently safer and healthier. The reality is that because the organic farming industry is still young and not well-regulated in India, farmers and consumers, alike, are not only confused about what products are best for them, but sometimes use products in ways that could harm them as well. For example, since organic fertilizers are difficult to obtain on a large scale in India, farmers often use farmyard manure, which may contain toxic chemicals and heavy metals. Certain plant sprays, such as Datura flower and leaf spray, have an element called atropine. If it is not applied in the right dose, it can act on the nervous system of the consumer. Unfortunately, how much and when to use it are not well-researched or regulated issues.

Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Organic farming is inherently unsafe for both farmers and consumers.
2. Farmers and consumers need to be educated about eco-friendly food.
Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER :

B. 2 only

4.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and practical message conveyed by the author of the passage?
A.
In India, organic farming should not be promoted as a substitute for conventional farming.
B.
There are no safe organic alternatives to chemical fertilizers.
C.
In India, farmers need to be guided and helped to make their organic farming sustainable.
D.
The aim of organic farming should not be to generate huge profits as there is still no global market for its products.
ANSWER :
C. In India, farmers need to be guided and helped to make their organic farming sustainable.
5.
Passage –3
Food consumption patterns have changed substantially in India over the past few decades. This has resulted in the disappearance of many nutritious foods such as millets. While food grain production has increased over five times since independence, it has not sufficiently addressed the issue of malnutrition. For long, the agriculture sector focused on increasing food production particularly staples, which led to lower production and consumption of indigenous traditional corps/grains, fruits and other vegetables, impacting food and nutrition security in the process. Further, intensive, monoculture agriculture practices can perpetuate the food and nutrition security problem by degrading the quality of land, water and food derived through them.
Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. To implement the Sustainable Development Goals and to achieve zero-hunger goal, monoculture agriculture practices are inevitable even if they do not address malnutrition.
2. Dependence on a few crops has negative consequences for human health and the ecosystem.
3. Government policies regarding food planning need to incorporate nutritional security.
4. For the present monoculture agriculture practices, farmers receive subsidies in various ways and government offers remunerative prices for grains and therefore they do not tend to consider crop diversity.
Which of the above assumptions are valid?
A.
1, 2 and 4 only
B.
2 and 3 only
C.
3 and 4 only
D.
1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER :
B. 2 and 3 only
6.
A box contains 14 black balls, 20 blue balls, 26 green balls, 28 yellow balls, 38 red balls and 54 white balls. Consider the following statements:
1. The smallest number n such that any n balls drawn from the box randomly must contain one full group of at least one colour is 175.
2. The smallest number m such that any m balls drawn from the box randomly must contain at least one ball of each colour is 167.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER :
C. Both 1 and 2
7.
If 'ZERO' is written as 'CHUR', then how is 'PLAYER' written?
A.
SOCACT
B.
SODBGT
C.
SODBHT
D.
SODBHU
ANSWER :
D. SODBHU
8.
Consider the following statements:
1. A is older than B.
2. C and D are of the same age.
3. E is the youngest.
4. F is younger than D.
5. F is older than A.
How many statements given above are required to determine the oldest person/persons?
A.
Only two
B.
Only three
C.
Only four
D.
All five
ANSWER :
D. All five
9.
Consider the following including the Question and the Statements:
There are 5 members A, B, C, D, E in a family.
Question: What is the relation of E to B ?
Statement-1: A and B are a married couple.
Statement-2: D is the father of C.
Statement-3: E is D's son.
Statement-4: A and C are sisters.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Questions and Statements?
A.
Statement-1, Statement-2 and Statement-3 are sufficient to answer the Question.
B.
Statement-1, Statement-3 and Statement-4 are sufficient to answer the Question.
C.
All four statement together are sufficient to answer the Question.
D.
All four statements are not sufficient to answer the Question.
ANSWER :
C. All four statement together are sufficient to answer the Question.
10.
Choose the group which is different from the others:
A.
17, 37, 47, 97
B.
31, 41, 53, 67
C.
71, 73, 79, 83
D.
83, 89, 91, 97
ANSWER :
D. 83, 89, 91, 97