2025 Prelims Paper 2 UPSC Question Paper

2025 Prelims Paper 2 UPSC Questions

21.
Directions for the following 4 (four) items :
Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage – 1
Each State in India faces a distinctive set of challenges regarding the impact of warming, but also offers its own set of opportunities for reducing emissions depending on its natural resources. For example, coastal States need to take action to protect their shores from sea level rise, districts that are drier need to prepare for variable monsoon precipitation. Himalayan regions have their own unique challenges, and selected parts of peninsular India and offshore areas offer great opportunities for harnessing wind power. These various aspects need to be considered for developing clear and sustainable goals for the future.

Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and pragmatic message conveyed by the author of the passage?
A.
The mitigation and adaptation strategies to address/tackle the climate change is essentially the responsibility of each State.
B.
India is too diverse to implement any effective strategy or programme to address/tackle the climate change.
C.
It is basically the responsibility of the Union Government to implement the climate action plans and ensure net zero emissions.
D.
India needs to formulate effective climate change mitigation and adaptation strategies at the State/region level.
ANSWER :
D. India needs to formulate effective climate change mitigation and adaptation strategies at the State/region level.
22.
With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:
I. Green energy production can be linked to/integrated with the climate change mitigation and adaptation strategies.
II. Effects of climate change are much more severe in coastal and mountainous regions.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
Both I and II
D.
Neither I nor II
ANSWER :
A. I only
23.
Passage – 2
If the social inequality is the most acutely felt social problem in India, insecurity, more than poverty, is the most acutely felt economic problem. Besides those below the official poverty line, even those just over the poverty line are subject to multiple economic insecurities of various kinds (due to wealth and/or health risks, market fluctuations, job-related uncertainties). Many Government policies are actually intended towards mitigating these insecurities.

Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the passage?
A.
India’s political executive should be aware that poverty and social inequality and the consequent sense of insecurity is the main social problem.
B.
In India, poverty is the primary reason for social inequality and insecurity.
C.
Poverty and social inequality are so intricately linked that they pose an unmanageable crisis for India.
D.
Insecurity, more than poverty, is the main economic issue that Government policies must address.
ANSWER :
D. Insecurity, more than poverty, is the main economic issue that Government policies must address.
24.
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
I. People above the poverty line also are prone to suffer from anxiety about economic insecurity.
II. Eradication of poverty can result in peace and social equality in the country.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
Both I and II
D.
Neither I nor II
ANSWER :
A. I only
25.
A solid cube is painted yellow on all its faces. The cube is then cut into 60 smaller but equal pieces by making the minimum number of cuts. Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. The minimum number of cuts is 9. II. The number of smaller pieces which are not painted on any face is 6. Select the correct answer using the code below:
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
Both I and II
D.
Neither I nor II
ANSWER :
C. Both I and II
26.
If 7 * 24 = 25 and 12 * 16 = 20, then what is 16 * 63 equal to?
A.
70
B.
66
C.
65
D.
64
ANSWER :
C. 65
27.
The petrol price shot up by 10% as a result of the hike in crude oil prices. The price of petrol before the hike was β‚Ή90 per litre. A person travels 2200 km every month and his car gives a mileage of 16 km per litre. By how many km should he reduce his travel if he wants to maintain his expenditure at the previous level?
A.
180 km
B.
200 km
C.
220 km
D.
240 km
ANSWER :
B. 200 km
28.
A 4-digit number N is such that when divided by 3, 5, 6, 9 it leaves a remainder of 1, 3, 4, 7 respectively. What is the smallest value of N?
A.
1068
B.
1072
C.
1078
D.
1082
ANSWER :
C. 1078
29.
Consider the following statements:
I. If A ≀ B > C < D > E > F β‰₯ G = H; then B is always greater than E.
II. If P > Q = R β‰₯ S = T ≀ U = V > W; then S is always less than V.
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
Both I and II
D.
Neither I nor II
ANSWER :
D. Neither I nor II
30.
What is the unit digit in the multiplication of 1 Γ— 3 Γ— 5 Γ— 7 Γ— 9 Γ— … Γ— 999?
A.
1
B.
3
C.
5
D.
9
ANSWER :
C. 5