The question asks about the theme of the India Infrastructure Report 2023, released by Shri M Venkaiah Naidu. This requires knowledge of recent reports and their focus areas, which is a common topic in current affairs for competitive exams.
Correct Option: C) Urban Planning and Development
The question asks to identify which option was NOT a component of globalisation in India's economic reforms, specifically referring to the reforms initiated in 1991. Globalisation, as part of the Liberalisation, Privatisation, and Globalisation (LPG) model, aimed at integrating India's economy with the global economy.
B) Promoting local-only trade. This policy is antithetical to globalisation, which aims to integrate a country's economy with the global economy through increased trade, investment, and technological exchange. The 1991 reforms sought to reduce barriers to international trade, not promote exclusive local trade.
The question asks to identify the Indian player who won two Olympic medals in a single edition of the Paris 2024 Games and was subsequently awarded the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in January 2025. This requires knowledge of recent sports achievements and national awards.
B) Manu Bhaker – She won two bronze medals in shooting at the Paris 2024 Olympics (Women's 10m Air Pistol and Mixed 10m Air Pistol Team) and was subsequently honoured with the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in January 2025.
The question asks about the inaugurator of the seventh edition of the Khelo India Youth Games 2025 in Bihar. This is a factual question related to current events and high-profile government events. The inauguration of such a significant national event is typically done by a very senior political figure.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the seventh edition of the Khelo India Youth Games 2025, which was held in Bihar. This aligns with the practice of the head of government inaugurating significant national events to underscore their importance and promote sports at the grassroots level.
The question asks about the tenure of a minister in a State government. This falls under the constitutional provisions related to the State Executive in India. Understanding the relationship between the Governor, Chief Minister, and the Council of Ministers is key to answering this question.
Constitutional Provision: Article 164(1) of the Indian Constitution states that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister. It further states that the Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Governor.
Meaning of 'Pleasure of the Governor': While ministers formally hold office during the pleasure of the Governor, in practice, this pleasure is exercised on the advice of the Chief Minister. This means the Governor can dismiss a minister only if the Chief Minister advises him to do so. However, if the Council of Ministers loses the confidence of the State Legislative Assembly, the Governor can dismiss the government (including all ministers) even without the Chief Minister's advice, as the 'pleasure' is then deemed to have been withdrawn.
Collective Responsibility: The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the State Legislative Assembly (Article 164(2)). This implies that as long as the Council of Ministers enjoys the confidence of the Assembly, the individual ministers continue in office.
Individual Responsibility: Despite collective responsibility, individual ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Governor. This allows for the removal of a specific minister without necessarily dissolving the entire Council of Ministers, typically on the advice of the Chief Minister.
B) during the pleasure of the Governor — This is the correct constitutional provision as per Article 164(1) of the Indian Constitution. While exercised practically on the Chief Minister's advice or when the government loses confidence, the formal tenure is linked to the Governor's pleasure.
A) for a fixed five-year term — Ministers do not have a fixed term. Their term is contingent on the pleasure of the Governor and the confidence of the Legislative Assembly. While the Legislative Assembly generally has a five-year term, the ministry can fall earlier, or individual ministers can be removed.
C) as long as they enjoy the confidence of the State Legislative Council — Ministers are collectively responsible to the State Legislative Assembly (the lower house), not the Legislative Council (the upper house). The confidence of the Legislative Council is not a constitutional requirement for a minister's tenure.
D) during the pleasure of the President — The President is involved in the appointment and removal of ministers at the Union level, not at the State level. State ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Governor, who is the constitutional head of the state.
The question asks to identify the specific unit of the Indonesian Special Forces that participated in Exercise GARUD SHAKTI in November 2024. This requires knowledge of the Indonesian military structure and the units involved in joint exercises with other nations, particularly India.
Correct Option: D) Kopassus is the Indonesian Army Special Forces Command (Komando Pasukan Khusus). It is the elite special forces unit of the Indonesian Army and is regularly involved in joint exercises like GARUD SHAKTI with India.
The question asks to identify the constitutional body responsible for recruiting candidates to All India Services like the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and Indian Police Service (IPS). This requires knowledge of the functions of various constitutional bodies in India.
D) Union Public Service Commission
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is a central recruiting agency in India. It is responsible for conducting examinations for appointments to the All India Services (IAS, IPS, IFS), Central Services, and various other posts under the Union government. Its role is enshrined in Article 320 of the Indian Constitution, which outlines its functions, including conducting examinations for appointments to the services of the Union and the All India Services.
The question asks about the primary aim of the Paris Agreement, adopted in 2015. To answer this, one needs to recall the core objectives of this international treaty.
A) limit global temperature rise — This is the core objective of the Paris Agreement, as it seeks to keep the global average temperature increase well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels and pursue efforts to limit it to 1.5°C.
The question asks to identify which of the given kingdoms was NOT based in modern-day Tamil Nadu. This requires knowledge of the geographical locations and historical domains of prominent South Indian dynasties.
The Cholas, Cheras, and Pandyas are known as the three great Tamil kingdoms (Moovendhar) and were historically based in the region that largely corresponds to modern-day Tamil Nadu and parts of Kerala. The Rashtrakutas, on the other hand, were a powerful Deccan dynasty whose core territory was in present-day Karnataka and Maharashtra, although they did exert influence and occasionally control over parts of Tamil Nadu during their peak.
Correct Option: A) Rashtrakutas
The question asks to identify the type of geological process that "slump" represents. Understanding the definitions of various mass wasting and geological processes is key to answering this question.
D) landslide — Slump is a common type of landslide where a coherent mass of material moves down a curved surface, often resulting in a backward tilt of the moving block.